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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Tutorial, Training MCCQE Materials

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q208-Q213):

NEW QUESTION # 208
A 43-year-old man comes to your office for the first time. He has not seen a doctor in over 5 years and has no known past medical history. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and the remainder of his examination is normal. As part of the initial visit, you order some screening blood work that reveals a fasting blood glucose of 6.3 mmol/L (3.3-5.8) and a hemoglobin A1c of 6.1% (4-6). Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Order thyrotroph (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level.
B. Perform a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.
C. Test capillary blood glucose 4 times a day.
D. Order an exercise stress test.
E. Order a urine albumin:creatinine ratio.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This patient's lab results suggest impaired fasting glucose and an elevated A1c just below the threshold for diabetes. The gold standard to confirm diabetes in such intermediate cases is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Diabetes Mellitus" Section:
"If A1c is in the 6.0-6.4% range or fasting glucose 6.1-6.9 mmol/L, a 75 g OGTT is recommended to establish the diagnosis of diabetes or confirm impaired glucose tolerance." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-4: Diabetes):
"Candidates must correctly apply diabetes screening and diagnostic criteria and follow up abnormal results with appropriate confirmatory testing." Urine ACR (C) is useful in diagnosed diabetes, not for initial screening. TSH (A), capillary glucose testing (B), and exercise testing (E) are not indicated at this stage.

NEW QUESTION # 209
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her persistent primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura. She was admitted to hospital with a relapse and received treatment with dexamethasone, intravenous immunoglobulin, and rituximab. She was recently discharged from hospital with a platelet count of 55 × 10#/L (130-360), and also continues to take 10 mg of prednisone once daily. She is scheduled for a splenectomy in 4 weeks. Which one of the following is the best next step in preparation for the patient's surgical procedure?

A. Stop prednisone 2 weeks preoperatively
B. Transfuse 5 units of platelets 1 week preoperatively
C. Prescribe daily azithromycin 1 week preoperatively
D. Arrange for preoperative vaccination
E. Start calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology / Surgery:
"Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery." MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):
"Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis." Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.
-

NEW QUESTION # 210
A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?

A. Blood work including inflammatory markers.
B. Physiotherapy for hip strengthening.
C. Further inquiry into depressive symptoms.
D. Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis and right hip.
E. Short course of anti-inflammatory medications.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags - loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal - the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Depression:
"Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
"Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal." Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.

NEW QUESTION # 211
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department because she has generalized urticaria, abdominal cramping, and postural dizziness 30 minutes after eating at a friend's birthday party. Which one of the following is the most appropriate route of administration for epinephrine?

A. Inhaled
B. Intranasal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
E. Intravenous

Answer: D

Explanation:
Anaphylaxis requires immediate administration of epinephrine via the intramuscular (IM) route, typically in the lateral thigh. This route provides the fastest and most reliable absorption for emergency treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Anaphylaxis:
"Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. The intramuscular route provides the most rapid and safe absorption in emergencies." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Allergy and Immunology:
"Candidates must know the emergency management of anaphylaxis, including proper dosage and intramuscular administration of epinephrine." IV administration (A) is reserved for critical care settings. Subcutaneous (C) and intranasal/inhaled routes (D, E) are ineffective in anaphylaxis.

NEW QUESTION # 212
A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, comes to the office at 10 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. When you ask how she is doing, she becomes tearful and says she has had severe nausea and vomiting. She is not taking her prenatal vitamins regularly and feels very guilty about it. She is worried that she is harming the fetus. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's case?

A. Prescribe ginger tablets to be taken 4 times daily
B. Suggest that she take cannabinoids 30 minutes before taking her prenatal vitamins
C. Advise her to replace her vitamin with folic acid only until her nausea improves
D. Refer her for counselling to manage her feelings of guilt
E. Tell her she should continue to take her prenatal vitamins daily regardless of nausea

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Ginger is a first-line, evidence-based non-pharmacologic treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. It's well tolerated and effective. Addressing nausea will help her resume vitamin use and reduce distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy":
"Ginger 250 mg four times daily is safe and effective for mild to moderate nausea." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-1: Early Pregnancy Management):
"Candidates must treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy using safe and effective options." Folic acid alone (A) is less effective than a full prenatal vitamin. B may help, but nausea should be addressed first. C lacks empathy for her symptoms. D (cannabinoids) is not recommended in pregnancy.

NEW QUESTION # 213
......

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